2009/01/21

give up the ghost

If conservative policies have proven to cause anger and revolt, why do rulers such as the Habsburgs, always return to a conservative government? 1848 was a critical year in European history that showed the "major players" how discontent the populace was with the way things were. Yet, after giving into some liberal demands, like the Austrian government under Ferdinand I when they allowed male suffrage and a single house of representatives and "agreed to put forced labor and serfdom on a path to abolition"(751). However, when the Austrians were able to bring Russia on their side, they attacked the squashed the rebellion, effectively getting rid of the liberal government in Vienna. Similarly, Italian rulers like Charles Albert, were unwilling to give into the liberal ideals of Mazzini, who represented the popular movements of the people, favoring a more conservative government, instead. It doesn't seem to make sense that all of these rulers could be so against laws that would greatly satisfy the people they are supposed to rule over. The argument could be made that nationalism would be easier to accomplish if everyone was satisfied rather that just the elite. It make absolutely no sense that any oppressed people would want to participate in a "nation state" that does not respect or help them. If the main goal was for there to be a strong sense of nationalism, why wouldn't these rulers sacrifice their ideas of how government should be handled, not only for the greater good, but for the cause of nationalism?

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